Submitted by Salil Mehta of Stiatistical Ideas [3] [3]
The Value-At-Risk Fiasco
If you were a looking at a simple portfolio that was a mix of 1 unit S&P 500 and 1 unit Shanghai Stock Exchange (SSE), then you are likely to consider value-at-risk (VAR) to feel cozy with your overall portfolio risk. This measure however is not considered a coherent risk measure that satisfies all of the properties of interest: monotonicity, translation invariance, homogeneity, and subadditivity. We'll explain the first three in a future article, but only focus here on how VAR violates the last of these four properties.
Subadditivity is where the risk associated with multiple holdings, in a portfolio, should not be greater than the sum of the individual holdings' risk. This construes the hallmark of diversification, and yet combined with the inappropriateness of VAR to measure market risk we see subadditivity levels violated. Risk events that should have only happened say one month every 1.5 years have occurred in each of the past three summer months.
VAR in this case, for the S&P, would come to a worst weekly loss of 6.0%. Bear in mind that the average worst weekly loss over the 65 months for the S&P was a 1.9% loss. Now we do the same exercise for the SSE, and with the same probability tolerance of ~6% we get a VAR loss of 5.3%. Here the average worst weekly loss over the 65 months for the SSE is a 2.6% loss. Note that the parametric mathematical relationship to estimate the overall VAR from blending two equally volatile stocks (or indexes) does relate to the correlation between those 2 indexes.
For the SSE, the changes were: -5.3%, -6.6%, and -6.9%. The 3 months associated with the S&P above, and the 3 months associated here with the SSE, have one month in common (May 2010). The four bolded months of the six months noted (3 S&P and 3 SSE) are part of the worst 3 joint, "worst weekly losses". We show these 3 joint losses below, where again the portfolio constitutes 1 unit S&P and 1 unit SSE (for a portfolio that is 50% in both indexes you would take ½ of every loss and VAR for the purposes of comparison):
(-5.2%) + -6.9% = -12.1%
-6.6% + -6.6% = -13.2% (this is May 2010)
June 2015: -0.7% + -14.3% = -15.0%
July 2015: -2.2% + -12.9% = -15.1%
August 2015: -5.9% + -12.3% = -11.9%
In each of these 3 months, the S&P always stayed within VAR yet the overall losses still were always greater than the 10.3% VAR (and all were greater than the theoretical 11.3% VAR for that matter!) A 1 in 16 months event immediately happening 3 months straight is not a quirky <0.02% (6%3) probability situation. It was a case of incorrectly using VAR as the preferred nonparametric risk measure for the market we are modeling (e.g., "extreme" tail risk events [8]). Despite how commonly it is endeared anyway by investors and middling stress testing regulators [9].
